From: Trevor Peterson (email@example.com)
Date: Thu Feb 22 2001 - 07:32:33 EST
I don't have the materials handy for a lexical analysis of this word, but
syntactically I would say it's a highly unlikely reading. with hUION
("son") in the accusative case, I would expect it to be the direct object
of a transitive verb. "Came forth" is not a transitive concept, so I'm
really not even sure what you might be able to do with the accusatives if
that were the sense intended. I could see "presented" or "brought forth"
as possible variations on the general theme of giving, and I don't think
they would substantially change the meaning of the verse. But once we're
talking about an intransitive meaning for the verb, it seems to me that
the syntax becomes unnecessarily complicated.
> from firstname.lastname@example.org
> Hi. I am new to b-greek. I have a question about one of the most known
> verses of all - John 3:16. A friend of mine mentioned that the verb
> DIDWMI (here in the past tense EDWKEN) is normally translated as 'gave'
> or 'sent' with the obvious two- person status that this conveys in this
> particular verse: "God so loved . . that he SENT/GAVE his only-begotten
> Son." But, my friend continued, this verb can also mean "presented,
> manifested, brought forth, even 'came forth' " which gives quite a
> different idea, and a much more unified theological concept, of God
> coming forth.
> Is this valid? I'd really like to know. Thanks.
> Julian Duckworth [new list-members please note that B-Greek
> protocol requires a full-name signature at the end of messages]
> [Moderator's note: let's keep discussion clear of theology, please,
> and keep the focus upon the legitimate range of meanings for the
> verb EDWKEN in this passage. cwc]
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