From: Dan Parker (email@example.com)
Date: Wed Feb 28 2001 - 21:26:48 EST
> > In harmony with the above, AT reads: "the Word was divine"; MO, "the Logos
> > was divine". NTIV, "the word was a god."
> G'day Melinda
> Could you tell us which versions AT, MO and NTIV represent please? I am
> guessing MO may be Moffat, but am scratching my head over the others.
> While a few translations render the verse in this way, the overwhelming
> majority of versions have rendered it "the word was God."
> What reasons does McKenzie give for translating it 'the word was with the
> God[= the Father], and the word was a divine being?'
> David McKay
Perhaps McKenzie made this distinction in a similar way to BDAG, because
the entry for QEOS in BDAG on page 450, section 2, speaks to the usage
of Q. w. ref. to Christ and says that it is in harmony with the Shema
of Israel at Dt 6:4 and links this statement with a pointer to section
4a on page 451 which is:
"that which is nontranscendent but considered worthy of special
reverence or respect, _god_." (Emphasis added by Danker)
In this section we find QEOS with respect to those who are "like gods"
and QEOS rendered "proves to be a god" and "of the superior pers. as
a god among humans."
Thus, it appears this is further solid lexical support for the
identification of Christ as "a god."
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