[b-greek] Re: theos and ho theos'

From: Numberup@worldnet.att.net
Date: Thu Mar 01 2001 - 11:48:40 EST

So where lies the weight of current scholarship, with the anarthrous QEOS of John
1:lb reflecting a qualitative description or (count-noun) predicate nominative? Has
current scholarship effectively moved beyond the conclusion of William Barclay that
because here there is "no definite article in front of [QEOS] it becomes a
description, and more of an adjective than a noun. The translation then becomes, to
put it rather clumsily, 'The Word was in the same class as God, belonged to the same
order of being as God'."? -- Many Witnesses, One Lord (Westminster, 1963)

Solomn Landers

Bruce Allen Randall Jr wrote:

> If I understand your question it seems that the versions listed are
> understood to imply similar meaning. There is probably a difference
> between "the word was divine" and "the word was a divine being. The later
> has expressed an "indefinite" predicate nomnitive while the former a
> "qualitative" description. Wallace gives a helpful treatment of this
> problem in discussing Colwell's Construction on 266-269 of his EXEGETICAL
> SYNTAX (cf. Robertson, 767).
> B. Randall

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