[b-greek] Re: theos and ho theos'

From: Steve Doel (steve.doel@wycliffe-hall.oxford.ac.uk)
Date: Thu Mar 01 2001 - 10:06:57 EST

Melinda wrote:

> Interestingly, translators that insist on rendering John
> 1:1, "The Word was God," do not hesitate to use the indefinite article (a,
> an) in their rendering of other passages where a singular anarthrous
> predicate noun occurs before the verb. Thus, at John 6:70, JBand KJ both
> refer to Judas Iscariot as "a devil," and at John 9:17 they describe Jesus
> as "a prophet."

That they do this does not invalidate their renditions of John 1:1, as you
seem to be suggesting. They are not working on the principle that anarthrous
predicate nominatives which preceed the verb are definite (which is false);
rather, they are mindful of the observation that definite predicate
nominatives which preceed the verb are anarthrous. The prior question with
regard to John 1:1 is - is QEOS definite?

Steve Doel

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