[b-greek] Re: theos and ho theos'

From: GregStffrd@aol.com
Date: Thu Mar 01 2001 - 22:26:37 EST

In a message dated 03/01/2001 1:31:09 PM Pacific Standard Time,
dwashbur@nyx.net writes:

 I thought the question of definiteness of predicate nominatives was
 the question at hand. I wasn't aware that it had been so thoroughly
 resolved. >>

The question, usually, has to do with anarthrous PNs preceding the verb, not
with genitives, accusatives, or datives. To compare a PN with a noun in a
genitive case does not seem to me to present a comparable situation in terms
of determining the definiteness of indefiniteness of the PN. Does this seem
right to you?

> With respect to the original question, and keeping entirely clear of
> theological lines, the fact remains that, grammatically, the LOGOS is
> hO THEOS. Therefore, regardless of whether one decides to view the
> of the PN as an indicator of pure qualitativeness (which I do not believe
> _ever_ the case with a PN) or an emphasized definite or indefinite noun
> (which I believe is _always_ the intent behind fronting [that is,
> the fact remains that the LOGOS cannot _grammatically_ be shown to be the
> he is "with."

 I don't follow the logic here.
 The original comment had to do with the fact that QEOS in John
 1:1 was anarthrous and therefore indefinite. That's the question I
 was addressing... >>

I understand. I hesitate expand further on my "logic," but I will say that
our quest for the proper tagging of QEOS in John 1:1c naturally moves us to
look at other elements in the immediate context. In this case, and this is
all that I will say on this level, QEOS in 1:1c is "with" hO QEOS in 1:1b, so
some people, myself included, find it easy to accept the view that says the
LOGOS is a QEOS other than the QEOS he is "with." If that still does not make
sense, and you want to explore this aspect of the discussion further, please
email me off-list.

Best regards,

Greg Stafford

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