[b-greek] Re: theos and ho theos'

From: Brian Sullivan (bsullivan@dingoblue.net.au)
Date: Thu Mar 01 2001 - 23:16:07 EST


Greetings,

Dave's observation of the importance of context is crucial here. Even
Colwells original cannon (1933 "A Definite Rule for the Use of the Article
in the Greek New Testament") states "if the context suggests that the
predicate is definite, it should be translated as a definite noun in spite
of the absence of the article."

As Dave points out, the author uses anarthrous phrases where the noun is
understood as definite (1:6, 12). However, Melinda notes Jn 6:70 and 9:17
using the indefinite 'a prophet', 'a devil.' Perhaps the use of the article
in 1:4 could be used to argue why such a theologically provocative statement
as Jn 1:1 is indefinite when v4 (seemingly less important) has it.

Secondly, what was the popular understanding of 'O QEOS' among first century
non Christians? Augustus was described as QEOS EK QEOU and QEOS QEOU
(Moulton & Milligan p. 287 The Vocabulary of the Greek New Testament)but it
is my understanding that the emperors divinity did not place him on a plan
of Jupiter and other gods - atleast not until the time of Nero or Claudius.
(I have areference for that somewhere but presently I can't find it). Of
course, I am open to correction.

My point is that we must try and consider the literature of the first
century so that the much debated phrase of Jn 1:1 may be understood as
intended. Perhaps this is beyond the scope of B-Greek.

Yours Most Sincerely,

Brian Sullivan

-----Original Message-----
From: Dave Washburn [mailto:dwashbur@nyx.net]
Sent: Friday, 2 March 2001 12:22 AM
To: Biblical Greek
Subject: [b-greek] Re: theos and ho theos'


> To all with interest,
> The fact that the word theos' in its second occurrence is without the
> definite article (ho) and is placed before the verb in the sentence in
Greek
> is significant. Interestingly, translators that insist on rendering John
> 1:1, "The Word was God," do not hesitate to use the indefinite article (a,
> an) in their rendering of other passages where a singular anarthrous
> predicate noun occurs before the verb. Thus, at John 6:70, JBand KJ both
> refer to Judas Iscariot as "a devil," and at John 9:17 they describe Jesus
> as "a prophet."
> Melinda
>
This is true, but I'm not sure it's significant. Context and authorial
intent are everything. Thus, even though QEOU is anarthrous in
John 1:6, I don't know of any translation that renders it "a god" or
"divine" or anything similar. Likewise, I know of no translation that
renders verse 12 "sons of a god" even though QEOU is anarthrous.
 Whether or not the article is present really means little or nothing
for determining the meaning of QEOS in 1:1, because John freely
uses both forms when referring to the proper noun "God." To make
the case for "a god" or "divine," we would need to see other
examples of QEOS with this meaning in the Johannine corpus. As
far as I know, it is never used this way anywhere else in that
corpus, which renders the indefinite or adjectival translations
suspect.

Dave Washburn
http://www.nyx.net/~dwashbur
"No study of probabilities inside a given frame can ever
tell us how probable it is that the frame itself can be
violated." C. S. Lewis

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