[b-greek] Re: theos and ho theos'--

From: Dave Washburn (dwashbur@nyx.net)
Date: Fri Mar 02 2001 - 23:58:57 EST

> << What evidence do you
> have for a predicate nominative carrying simultaneous nuances of two or
> more, for example, QEOS in 1:1 being both qualitative and indefinite? >>
> I believe we can both agree that nouns convey both a definite and an
> indefinite semantic in numerous instances. Right? That being said, I accept
> that fronting (along with extraposition) is a Greek device that allows for a
> certain emphasis of the noun, which emphasis _I think_ is of a qualitative
> nature.

I'm not sure I can agree with this, especially in the case of a
*proper* noun. Common nouns, sure. Most can convey both
nuances. But a proper noun is different. My given name is David;
somehow I can't see someone looking at me and saying "You're
very David." So the question, within the grammatical framework
you're constructing, becomes whether QEOS is a proper noun or
not. If it is, then the question of definiteness is a non-issue. To
find out whether John ever uses the word as a common noun we
have to (again I say :-) examine his usage of the word. Thus, the
question becomes more a semantic one than a syntactic one. I
personally think the fronting is done to form a chiasmus with
LOGOS and QEON in the previous clause, but that's just me.

Dave Washburn
"No study of probabilities inside a given frame can ever
tell us how probable it is that the frame itself can be
violated." C. S. Lewis

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