[b-greek] Re: theos and ho theos'--

From: One of the McKays (musicke@ozemail.com.au)
Date: Sat Mar 03 2001 - 20:39:41 EST

Greg said:
If in John 1:1c QEOS is a proper noun, then we have the _grammatical_
difficulty of explaining how the Word can be God and be "with" God.

This is one reason why most scholars have and are continuing to move away
viewing QEOS in 1:1c as definite.

Who are these "most scholars?" Sounds hard to prove, to me.

The idea of the Word being "with God" and being "God" is a problem for some
theological systems, but not a problem at all for others.
David McKay

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