[b-greek] Re: theos and ho theos'--

From: GregStffrd@aol.com
Date: Sat Mar 03 2001 - 21:58:59 EST

In a message dated 03/03/2001 6:51:53 PM Pacific Standard Time,
dwashbur@nyx.net writes:

<< Exactly. Contrary to what Greg said, the problem is theological,
 not grammatical. >>

I have outlined my grammatical concerns and added nothing of a theological
tone. None of the grammatical problems associated with claiming that QEOS in
1:1c is definite have been met on a grammatical level, so I am exiting the
discussion of that point. If you have some grammatical response that might be
beneficial for us to explore, then present it. Otherwise, I agree entirely
with Paul and others in _outlining_ and _rejecting_ QEOS in 1:1c as a
definite PN, due to the obvious _grammatical_ problems it presents. For
details, see my previous posts and Paul's recent posts.


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