[b-greek] TO TELION 1Corinthians 13:10 Revisit of prior discussion plus new.

From: David Hakes (jonih6@excite.com)
Date: Mon Mar 05 2001 - 16:20:55 EST

The earliar postings state that "to telion" is neuter substantive. Someone
is trying to tell me that "to telion" is substantival adjective. They
therefore stress - as a substantial adjective there must be a referrent
nearby and therefore someone such as Spiros Zodiates cannot believe that
the "perfect thing" is scripture. The earlier postings seem to convey that
the "perfect thing" could in a way be translated "perfect anything". They
also state: "Grammatically, "ton telion" is a neuter noun. But the word
for scripture for scripture 'graphe' is feminine.Scripture is nowhere
identified, and is a feminine noun. Therefore a neuter adjective will not
refer to a feminine noun--especially when the idea is nowhere in the
context." I do not believe that Spiros Zodhiates would purposely go
against the language. It seems to me that both noun and adjective is
dropped from "neuter substantive" whereas the other person uses
Bauer-Arndt-Gingtich-Danker "refers to telion(a,os depending on the
gender)as an adjective." Also,"a substantival adjective is an adjective is
an adjective functioning as a noun - the adjective takes the place as a
noun.In English"perfect" is not a noun, it is a comparative term, it
modifies other words.But once that other thing has been identified, the
adjective can stand in its place." All this does not seem to jive with the
way "to telion" was discussed earlier. Plus you can apparently say 'ton
telion' because of a Greek grammatical devive called a "movable nu" as a
personal stylistic choice. I also agree

David Hakes [Moderator's note: new list-members please note that
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