From: Jim Darden (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Tue Mar 06 2001 - 15:13:59 EST
That's a pretty good one but a careful reading, as you point out, can clear
up the ambiguity. I'm looking for specific examples where, in our modern
English translations, the first/second plural is *impossible* to discern.
Lk 22:31-32 (thanks Carl) meets this criterion.
>Does the story of the mother of the sons of Zebedee ( Mt. 20:20 ) meet your
>In the English of the RSV
> >> 20:20 Then the mother of the sons of Zeb'edee came up to him, with
>her sons, and kneeling before him she asked him for something. 20:21 And
>he said to her, "What do you want?" She said to him, "Command that these
>two sons of mine may sit, one at your right hand and one at your left, in
>your kingdom." 20:22 But Jesus answered, "You do not know what you are
>asking. Are you able to drink the cup that I am to drink?" They said to
>him, "We are able." <<
>In v.22, "you" is ambiguous, is it the mother or the sons Jesus is
>addressing? In the Greek it is immediately clear from OUK OIDATE that it is
>the sons, but in English this is only made clear when it is established
>>that "they" said to him.
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