Date: Wed Mar 07 2001 - 10:45:18 EST
I haven't searched every substantive participle in the NT either, but according to
Wallace in _Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics_ , page 619, "the substantival participle
may or *may not* be articular, although most are." (Emphasis added)
Kenneth Litwak wrote:
> One last question: I haven't tried to look at every
> participle in the NT I can find, but it seems like in
> general, when a participle is used substantively, it
> has the article. TEQRAUSMENOUS seems an exception.
> How common is it to use participles as substantives
> anarthrously? Thanks.
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