From: Keith Thompson (email@example.com)
Date: Thu Mar 22 2001 - 11:10:08 EST
Thanks for the responses. I don't think if any translations are
grammatically possible they are equally as likely as others, in my
opinion any translation must be shown to be probable (grammatically and
otherwise). Just being possible isn't good enough.
The reason for my question is a bloke was accusing translators of lying
about what the Greek text says and seemed to be making up grammatical
rules which don't exist (or I'd never heard of them) to prove these
translations were IMPOSSIBLE. I just wanted to be sure before I
responded. I don't see how the case of an anarthrous noun has any effect
on whether it's definite or not, and that PNEUMA in the dative case must
refer to the person of the Holy Spirit (Romans 2:29). And in the
Colossians 1:19 example, TO PLHRWMA by itself must mean 'his fullness'
and any other translation is wrong because of grammar alone, so it can't
say simply 'the fullness'.
Thanks for the information on pronunciation, though I was only asking
about silent consonants at the beginning of a word. I was hoping Greek
would be like English pronunciation of words like 'know' and
'pneumatic', which would make it easier. So these 'tricky' combinations
of letters at the beginning of a word are pronounced exactly as if they
occurred in the middle of a word?
Keith (Manchester, UK)
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