[b-greek] Re: Ephesians 3:13

From: Jim West (jwest@highland.net)
Date: Tue Mar 27 2001 - 10:50:41 EST


At 09:29 AM 3/27/01 -0600, you wrote:
>Hi B-Greekers,
>Someone has asked a question and I wonder what your answer would be. The
>question is: How do we know that the New Testament wasn't translated from a
>common language of the day (Aramaic and Hebrew) to the Greek which was in
>turn translated into Latin and then German, English, etc.?

if it had been translated from hebrew or aramaic, it would "bear the marks
on its hands and feet" of such translation. when a text (now or then) is
translated you can pretty much tell it quite easily. for instance, the next
time you buy a vcr, read the instructions! you can easily see that the text
is rough and inelegant and seems to be hard to read. in short, someone
translated it from japanese and they had a pretty hard time of it. further,
if someone has some semblance of knowledge regarding greek or hebrew, it is
esay to see places in the bible where the english versions just pretty much
muck it up.

on the whole issue of translation- see the excellent discussion in Moulton's
Grammar of New Testament Greek, vol 1.

best,

jim

++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++

Jim West, ThD

Home Page:
Biblical Studies Resources
http://web.infoave.net/~jwest


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