[b-greek] the use of future

From: Carsten Schmelzer (storch@storchsites.de)
Date: Thu Apr 05 2001 - 19:33:29 EDT

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<DIV><FONT face=Arial size=2>hello,</FONT></DIV>
<DIV><FONT face=Arial size=2></FONT>&nbsp;</DIV>
<DIV><FONT face=Arial size=2>in jesus quotation of the commandments he uses very
frequently the 2nd person singular future indicative (i.e.lk 10:27,mat 22:39).
why is this form&nbsp;always translated as an imperative?</FONT></DIV>
<DIV><FONT face=Arial size=2>"Thou shalt love thy neighbour as thyself (mat
22:39)". would it not be more exactly to translate: "you will..."?</FONT></DIV>
<DIV><FONT face=Arial size=2>in about 10 german versions i just found one
(walter jens) who translates not an imperative but "normal future".</FONT></DIV>
<DIV><FONT face=Arial size=2>is the futureform normally used as an
<DIV><FONT face=Arial size=2></FONT>&nbsp;</DIV>
<DIV><FONT face=Arial size=2>thank you,</FONT></DIV>
<DIV><FONT face=Arial size=2></FONT>&nbsp;</DIV>
<DIV><FONT face=Arial size=2>storch</FONT></DIV>
<DIV><FONT face=Arial size=2></FONT>&nbsp;</DIV>
<DIV><FONT face=Arial
size=2>-----------------------------------------------------<BR>Carsten *Storch*
Schmelzer<BR>Jesus Freaks International<BR>Germany<BR><A
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