From: Mike Sangrey (msangrey@BlueFeltHat.org)
Date: Fri Apr 06 2001 - 11:28:46 EDT
> in jesus quotation of the commandments he uses very frequently the 2nd
> person singular future indicative (i.e.lk 10:27,mat 22:39). why is
> this form always translated as an imperative?
I have the following definitions in a file. Note the subtle difference
between `imperative' and `future'.
I would be interested, BTW, what others think of these definitions. How
close do you think they are? How would you add to them to make them
Indicative: From my perspective this exists in reality.
Subjunctive: From my perspective this exists in my mind, but not in
Optative: From my perspective this exists in my mind, but I have a
contingent expectation that it will exist in reality.
Imperative: From my perspecitve this exists in my mind, but I want it
to exist in reality.
Future: From my perspective though this exists in my mind, it will
exist in reality.
"The first one last wins."
"A net of highly cohesive details reveals the truth."
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