From: Glenn Blank (email@example.com)
Date: Fri Apr 06 2001 - 13:50:19 EDT
"Carsten Schmelzer" <firstname.lastname@example.org> wrote on Date: Fri, 6 Apr 2001
>maybe my question was not exactly enough: is it possible
>(from the mere language-aspect) to translate a simple future
>in these scripture?
If in German it is not possible to express a command using future indicative
syntax (and it is not if I follow what you said correctly), then translating
the commands in Mat 5:21 et al as a future indicative in German would be
incorrect: it should be translated using imperative syntax in spite of its
appearance in indicative form in the GNT.
>is it for grammatical or for theological reasons that
>theses scriptures are mostly translated as imperative?
I would not say for theological reasons but for contextual reasons (and in a
sense grammatical reasons since it appears that it is grammatically correct
in Grk to use a future indicative to express a command while in German, to
be grammatically correct, one must use an imperative syntax to express a
Both the larger context and the immediate context of mat 5:21 contribute to
the conclusion that a command is meant. In the larger context, it is a
quotation of a previous law, as indicated in verse 17. An example of
immediate context is in verses 43 and 44. Jesus uses the imperative mood in
v. 44, but he makes it parallel with the use of the fut. ind. in verse 43.
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