From: Glen L Naftaniel (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Fri Apr 20 2001 - 18:42:23 EDT
I am trying to discern the meaning of LOGOS in 1Jo 1:1; 1Pet
1:23 and in Hebrew 4:12,13.
I have two questions:
(1) Is there any significance to the words LOGOS and ZOE appearing
together? Does it lend more credence to it referring to Jesus in all
(2) In Heb 4:12: The "his" in "his sight" is a personal pronoun. It
refers back to it's antecedent ---- a person.
Who is the antecedent of "his"? Consider the following:
In 1Jo 1:1 That which was from the beginning, which we have heard,
which we have seen with our eyes, which we have looked upon,
and our hands have handled, of the Word (LOGOS) of life (ZOE);
So, too, in I Peter 1:23, we see LOGOS and ZOE.
"by the word (LOGOS) of God, which liveth (ZOE)"
Finally, consider another passage (Hebrew 4:12,13) that uses LOGOS (word)
"For the word (LOGOS) of God
- quick (ZOE) and
- powerful, and
- sharper than any twoedged sword,
- piercing even to the dividing asunder of soul and spirit
and of the joints and marrow,
- a discerner of the thoughts and intents of the heart.
- there any creature that is not manifest in his sight: "
The "his" in "his sight" is a personal pronoun. It refers back to it's
antecedent ---- a person.
Who is the antecedent of "his"?
May Jesus bless,
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