[b-greek] John 1:15

From: David Thiele (thielogian@yahoo.com)
Date: Sat Apr 21 2001 - 02:47:37 EDT

This is my first posting.

I am wondering if someone can explain to me why the relative pronoun in
John 1:15 is in the accusative case where the genitive appears to be more
appropriate. It reads hOUTOS HN hON EIPON (This is he whom I said). The
meaning is "This is he of whom I said" which to my thinking should be

Seeing as neither commentaries or grammars which I have consulted have
discussed the problem, I feel I am missing something basic. I don't know
what it is.

Can anyone clarify it for me


David Thiele
Pacific Adventist University

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