From: Carl W. Conrad (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Sat Apr 21 2001 - 07:10:49 EDT
At 2:47 AM -0400 4/21/01, David Thiele wrote:
>This is my first posting.
>I am wondering if someone can explain to me why the relative pronoun in
>John 1:15 is in the accusative case where the genitive appears to be more
>appropriate. It reads hOUTOS HN hON EIPON (This is he whom I said). The
>meaning is "This is he of whom I said" which to my thinking should be
>hOUTOS HN hOU EIPON.
>Seeing as neither commentaries or grammars which I have consulted have
>discussed the problem, I feel I am missing something basic. I don't know
>what it is.
There's an ellipsis here (common enough in Greek usage) of a nominative
pronoun (e.g.) EKEINOS or noun (e.g. hO ANQRWPOS) which is actually
"squeezed" into the accusative; the accusative is the object of EIPON.
Literally, it's "This was (the one) whom I said (i.e. 'meant')." At any
rate, quite commonly in Greek the antecedent is omitted and the relative
pronoun is in the case required for its own clause.
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University
1647 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243
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