[b-greek] two questions

From: Jeff & Brandie Green (rjgreen@alumni.uwaterloo.ca)
Date: Sun Apr 22 2001 - 10:40:43 EDT

    Two unrelated questions: 1) the discussion of contract-verbs got me thinking... where did that idea (that
vowel contraction is the explanation for the vowel changes in those words) come from? To me, anyway, it's not an
obvious explanation. (No, I don't have a better idea, and yes, it does work, so I don't have a problem with it as
an explanation.) Do we ever see, for example, POIE-, or AGAPA- that clearly tells us these are
non-high-(short?)-vowel-final stems (or whatever you want to call them). Or does it have something to do with
metric structure/accent rules (i.e., we just know there's another vowel hiding in there somewhere)?
    2) In Luke 22:69, I ran across APO TOU NUN DE ESTAI ... I'm wondering why DE isn't the second word in the
phrase (as I was taught to expect). I can see APO TOU NUN as a unit (prepositional phrase), but DE tends to show up
in the middle of other things I can think of as units, so why isn't it allowed to show up here? (A quick check
turned up APO DE THS MILHTOU... in Acts 20:17, so it looks like "postpositives don't break into prepositional
phrases" isn't the answer.) Has anyone got any insights into Greek syntax that could help me understand this?
Jeff Green <><

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