From: Randall Buth (ButhFam@compuserve.com)
Date: Tue Apr 24 2001 - 14:46:00 EDT
>> Also someone mentioned there was 'Greek word play' which is not
>> possible in Hebrew or Aramaic in Matthew 16 and John 21, what exactly is
>Which verses? Mark 16 is unfinished or lost from 16:9 on and appended
>with a non-Markan ending (several versions). John 21 is also an appendix
>not part of the original.
Probably refers to the two "classics": "rock" and "love".
On 'rock' see David Bivin in Jerusalem Perspective arguing for Petros as a
loan-word/name. And Yes, the wordplay was possible in Mishnaic Hebrew, even
attested in rabbinic literature.
On 'love', there are alot of ways to express various shades of love in both
Hebrew and Aramaic. The 'impossibility' is more a limit on the person's own
grasp of the languages. HOWEVER, that being said, I think John 21 was
written in Greek.
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