From: Alan B. Thomas (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Sat May 05 2001 - 09:58:09 EDT
I realize that English has adopted this concept; from
where I know not.
But as I review the various NT grammars on the
Editorial "we," I remain unconvinced that this was
ever the thought behind a NT writer. (We = me)
In each instance, I can make equal (better perhaps)
sense out of a supposed Editorial "we" by
understanding it as, for example, Paul and his
entourage (Exclusive use), or Paul (and his entourage)
and the readers (Inclusive use).
Is this possibly a case of reading a modern idiom back
into the NT, or, is there substantial use of this
Editorial "we" in other ancient languages? I really am
not sure how one could find an "undisputed" example of
such a usage. It's hard enough to do that in English.
Would there be any strong objections for eliminating
the Editorial "we" altogether?
Alan B. Thomas
"There may be no way out, but there
is always a way up."
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