[b-greek] Re: Greek transliteration Iesous from Yehoshua/Joshua/Yeshua?

From: Miketolb@aol.com
Date: Tue May 08 2001 - 11:51:58 EDT

Hi Jack, I found your post informative and thanks for the response, but I have a few questions. You state that it was in Galilean Aramaic that Ayins and Alephs were dropped. What I don't understand is, why was "Joshua" translated as "Iesous" outside of Galilee? What I mean is, doesn't the Septuagint translate Yehoshua as "Iesous"? Are you saying that this Galilean practice of dropping Ayins and Alephs was the same as the author(s) of the Septuagint?

Also, you mention that in the 2nd Temple period the convention was to "truncate the theophoric." What I don't understand is why this doesn't seem to be the case with other names such as "Elijah"... it is not translated as "Hlihs" but rather "Hlias". Likewise, Jehosaphat isn't translated into Greek as "Ihosaphat" but as "Iosaphat". I'm just not understanding why it seems in this particular case of the name Yehoshua the theophoric is truncated and pronounced "yay".

Thanks in advance,

Michael Tolbert

PS: To the person who wanted to know about my affiliation, I have none. I am just a guy who is interested in this subject and subscribed to this list. I have no formal training in Greek, so please excuse my ignorance. ;)

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