From: Steve Puluka (email@example.com)
Date: Sun May 20 2001 - 08:57:16 EDT
----- Original Message -----
From: "Keith Thompson" <firstname.lastname@example.org>
> Thanks for the replies, I get what ANTITUPON means now. So it must be
> related to BAPTISMA? Is it in apposition to it?
> This is how I would translate it, (1 Peter 3:21)...
> Which also now saves you, the real thing (of which that previously
> mentioned is a likeness), baptism...
> Is this correct? And if the idea is correct is there a better way to
> express ANTITUPON than what I wrote, i.e. with just one or two English
This is more a question of translation philosophy than Greek grammar. There
is a bible-translation list moderated by one of the b-greek list members at
Here is a perfect example of where you want to decide for your translation
where to draw the line for footnotes. There are a number of cultural
presuppositions that exist in written literature and they are of various
levels in complexity. An English example would be to call a man Romeo or
Don Juan. We instantly convert the reference into "lover".
This verse is an example of such a presupposition in the Greek New
Testament. You can try to bring the cultural understanding into your
translation (as you do above) or you can translate more literally and
footnote the passage with the cultural explanation below. Personally, in
this case I like translating the words as type and anti-type with the
Cantor Holy Ghost Church
Mckees Rocks PA
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