From: Harry W. Jones (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Sun May 20 2001 - 19:23:14 EDT
According to my english grammer there is a subjunctive mood in
english. It's called the present subjunctive. Also according to my
Greek grammer book hINA doesn't demand the subjunctive mood but can
appear with the indicative mood and in fact does in the New Testament.
In seaching my grammers I have found no evidence that hINA forces
the subjunctive mood into the indicative mood.
The truth is, why would Paul use the subjunctive mood anyway if he
really ment the indicative mood. I mean why try to force anything
when he didn't have to?
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