From: Iver Larsen (email@example.com)
Date: Tue May 22 2001 - 02:40:53 EDT
> Thought I'd get a little feedback on an interesting conundrum.
> Lk 20.10 INA APO TOU KARPOU TOU AMPELWNOS DWSOUSIN AUTW
> "that (something) from the fruit of the vineyard they WILL GIVE him"
> Mk 12.2 INA PARA TWN GEWRGWN LABH APO TWN KARPWN TOU AMPELWNOS
> "that from the farmers he WOULD GET (something) from the fruits of the
> 1) Does anyone think that INA + future is
> a. normal?
> b. a Greek improvement?
> c. "imitating the LXX"?
> Luke's next line is certainly not 'imitating' the LXX:
> He has a reversed chronological order, and more "Greek"
> compound verb, and 'split object' "... sent-out, him having beaten, empty"
> EXAPESTEILAN AUTON DEIRANTES KENON while
> Mark has non-compound verbs, an exepcted order "beat ... sent"
> AUTON EDEIRAN KAI APESTEILAN KENON
> 2) Would someone be able to provide statistics of its use in the LXX? I
> don't have such a search program.
> 3) Finally, with negative answers to question 1a,b,c,
> wouldn't it be difficult to say that Luke, our capable Greek writer, is
> Mark here?
> [PS: also, singular 'fruit' (=Luke) is normative Biblical Hebrew [peri]
> that was frequently pluralized
> in the LXX in keeping with Greek style (=Mark) and Mishnaic style [perot].
> Randall Buth
You know more Hebrew than most of us. Is it likely that the few cases of hINA with future
reflect an underlying Hebrew source or grammar?
I don't have tools to search outside the GNT, but within I found this construction
primarily in Revelation. What might that suggest? (The references I found were: Lk 20:10,
John 7:3, Acts 21:24, Gal 2:4 and Rev 3:9, 6:4,11, 8:3, 9:5,20, 13:12, 14:13, 22:14.)
It would be nice to know where it occurs in LXX. Is it found at all in Hellenistic Greek
outside any suspicion of Hebrew influence?
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