From: Jeffrey B. Gibson (email@example.com)
Date: Sun Jun 03 2001 - 12:24:30 EDT
Jim West wrote:
> At 07:32 PM 6/2/01 -0400, you wrote:
> >To all B-Greekers,
> >Since in the original manuscripts there where no punctuation marks,the
> >question is why not,
> > "...AMHN SOI LEGW SHMERON, MET' EMOU ESH EN TW PARADEISW"
> >INSTEAD OF, "...AMHN SOI LEGW, SHMERON MET' EMOU ESH EN TW PARADEISW"?
> >Harry W. Jones
> well you are correct. however, whichever reading you adopt- the meaning is
> essentially the same..
> today i tell you, you will be with me in paradise
> is the same as
> i tell you, today you will be with me in paradise.
> either way the thief is going to go where jesus goes.
I beg to differ! If one feels that the SHMERON is a chronological indicator, then it
makes a good deal of difference whether the term modifies the first or the second
clause. For if it is the second clause, and is intended as an indicator of when the
"thief" (what a woeful translation!) AND Jesus would be in paradise, then we have a
contradiction between Luke's statement here and his supposition that Jesus does not
enter "paradise" until after the resurrection.
Moreover, one also has to show that the term might **not** be a chronological
reference at all (i.e., something that denotes the day of the crucifixion), but a
reference to the eschatological "today" (cf. Luke's other uses of this term in the
Capernaum sermon and with the story of Zacchaeus, so that Jesus is actually saying, "I
say to you, now that the great "today" is here, that (given your repentance, you will
be (at no specified time) with me in paradise.
Jeffrey B. Gibson, D.Phil. (Oxon.)
7423 N. Sheridan Road #2A
Chicago, Illinois 60626
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