From: Ted Mann (email@example.com)
Date: Sun Jun 03 2001 - 14:12:52 EDT
I gather from other responses to Harry's question that the comma can
grammatically be placed in either spot. (Maybe it should be left out
altogether?) The significance of its placement seems to be entirely
theological. Besides what others have said, I know a few people who like to
associate SHEMERON with the first clause because they believe that upon
death people enter a non-communicative sleep until the resurrection. To
have them in Paradise with Christ immediately following death implies that
they are mistaken. I'm not at all suggesting that the theological issues be
debated on b-Greek; only that the placement of the comma does make a big
difference to many individuals, and a definitive resolution to the question
would be helpful. If an answer to Harry's question can in fact be
determined, it apparently lies beyond the realm of grammar.
Dr. Theodore H. Mann
----- Original Message -----
From: "Jim West" <firstname.lastname@example.org>
To: "Biblical Greek" <email@example.com>
Sent: Sunday, June 03, 2001 8:22 AM
Subject: [b-greek] Re: Luke 23:43 .Was the thief with Jesus in pardise the
> At 07:32 PM 6/2/01 -0400, you wrote:
> >To all B-Greekers,
> >Since in the original manuscripts there where no punctuation marks,the
> >question is why not,
> > "...AMHN SOI LEGW SHMERON, MET' EMOU ESH EN TW PARADEISW"
> >INSTEAD OF, "...AMHN SOI LEGW, SHMERON MET' EMOU ESH EN TW PARADEISW"?
> >Harry W. Jones
> well you are correct. however, whichever reading you adopt- the meaning
> essentially the same..
> today i tell you, you will be with me in paradise
> is the same as
> i tell you, today you will be with me in paradise.
> either way the thief is going to go where jesus goes.
> Jim West, ThD
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