From: Kenneth Litwak (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Sun Jun 03 2001 - 23:56:48 EDT
I'm curious about a piece of Luke 4:40
APANTES (OSOI EICON ASQENOUNTAS
(if the "official transliteration scheme is different,
please tell me).
I have two questions.
1. Why not just use APANTES and ASQENOUNTES?
Why the relative pronoun plus ECW? What is the
diference in meaning? Is this more loquacious form
the more "classical" version? It doesn't look look
like a Hebrew construction.
2. Why isn't ASQENOUNTAS a nominative to match the
subejct? This looks like a periphrastic to me, and I
thought that the participle had the same case as he
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