[b-greek] Re: Phil 2:2, why TO AUTO accusative?

From: Daniel L. Christiansen (dlc@multnomah.edu)
Date: Wed Jun 06 2001 - 13:39:55 EDT

Mike Sangrey wrote [snipped]:

> OK, but why? Why did BAGD chose TO AUTO as accusative and not nominative?


    It is true that TO AUTO is, in itself, an ambiguous (nominative/accusative)
form; however, the verb here is 2nd plural, which would rule out the nominative. TO
AUTO as a nominative would function as a third person subject, which use is ruled
out by the verb.
    I'm interested in knowing how you would possibly translate this thought, even if
the verb had been 3rd singular: "Let the same one think." ?

Daniel L. Christiansen
Professor of Biblical Languages, Portland Bible College
Adjunct, Multnomah Bible College and Biblical Seminary
(503) 820-0231

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