From: Harry W. Jones (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Mon Jun 11 2001 - 17:57:00 EDT
> In Mt. 2:4, whereas the NASB, NIV, etc., translate EPUQAVETO as "he asked,"
> or "inquired," I notice the KJV has "demanded," which produces quite a
> different sense to me. Is "demanded," a less apt translation or is this
> only a matter of changes in the English language over a span of 400 years?
> Would "demand" have meant "ask" to 17th-century readers? Many thanks.
> Dr. Theodore H. Mann
You have asked a very interesting question. The answer is that the KJV
has mistranslated that Greek word, "EPUQAVETO". It should be translated
as, "inquired". The lexical form of that verb is, "PUNQANOUAI". With
a strong's number of 4441. My reference is BAGD and Thayer.
Harry W. Jones
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