From: Carl W. Conrad (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Mon Jun 11 2001 - 19:49:30 EDT
At 5:00 PM -0400 6/11/01, Ted Mann wrote:
>In Mt. 2:4, whereas the NASB, NIV, etc., translate EPUQAVETO as "he asked,"
>or "inquired," I notice the KJV has "demanded," which produces quite a
>different sense to me. Is "demanded," a less apt translation or is this
>only a matter of changes in the English language over a span of 400 years?
>Would "demand" have meant "ask" to 17th-century readers? Many thanks.
Yes, it would; it is a matter of Elizabethan (or should I say Jacobean)
English; one might well relate it to French DEMANDER, whence it actually
derives from old Norman French.
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics/Washington University
Home: 7222 Colgate Ave./St. Louis, MO 63130/(314) 726-5649
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