From: Chuck Tripp (email@example.com)
Date: Mon Jun 11 2001 - 21:39:58 EDT
My guess is that 'demand' in the KJV is taking the French meaning, i.e.
demander, which is very similar in meaning to our english word 'ask.'
Probably due to the influence of French on the English language after the
1066 Norman conquest of England.
----- Original Message -----
From: Ted Mann <firstname.lastname@example.org>
To: Biblical Greek <email@example.com>
Sent: Monday, June 11, 2001 1:00 PM
Subject: [b-greek] KJV Mt. 2:4
> In Mt. 2:4, whereas the NASB, NIV, etc., translate EPUQAVETO as "he
> or "inquired," I notice the KJV has "demanded," which produces quite a
> different sense to me. Is "demanded," a less apt translation or is this
> only a matter of changes in the English language over a span of 400 years?
> Would "demand" have meant "ask" to 17th-century readers? Many thanks.
> Dr. Theodore H. Mann
> B-Greek home page: http://metalab.unc.edu/bgreek
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