From: J. Norfleete Day (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Mon Jun 25 2001 - 15:18:19 EDT
Does anyone know of grammaticaldocumentation to support the notion
that there is significance in the change of word order in John 17 when
Jesus rephrases the Samaritan woman's confession that she has no husband?
She says, oujk e[cw a[ndra and Jesus responds with
a[ndra oujk e[cw
Also, in 4:18, are you aware of documentation supporting the argument
that the position of the possessive pronoun "your" conveys the emphatic
sense: he is not YOUR husband, he is another woman's husband?
And finally, does the use of "exw" in describing her relationship
with the man necessarily imply a sexual relationship?
Thanks for any help you can give.
J. N. Day
Beeson Divinity School
B-Greek home page: http://metalab.unc.edu/bgreek
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