From: c stirling bartholomew (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Tue Jun 26 2001 - 14:57:36 EDT
Anyone have anything to say about why ANATEILANTOS TOU hHLIOU shows up at
the end of the clause in Mk 16:2. Mark piles up so many adverbials in this
clause that perhaps he just didn't want to place yet another one before the
main verb. This is a lame explanation. Surely one of you can do better.
Also, I am wondering why we have a full stop after TOU hHLIOU. Seems like
KAI LIAN . . . TOU hHLIOU can be understood as a preface to KAI ELEGON PROS
hEAUTAS. The full stop, stops us where we should not stop. But that is a
different question than the position of ANATEILANTOS TOU hHLIOU or perhaps
is is a related question.
Some of you linguists have any ideas about the pragmatic significance of the
clause final position of ANATEILANTOS TOU hHLIOU?
Comments from nonlinguists are also welcome.
Clayton Stirling Bartholomew
Three Tree Point
P.O. Box 255 Seahurst WA 98062
B-Greek home page: http://metalab.unc.edu/bgreek
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