From: Carl W. Conrad (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Wed Jun 27 2001 - 07:04:02 EDT
At 11:57 AM -0700 6/26/01, c stirling bartholomew wrote:
>Anyone have anything to say about why ANATEILANTOS TOU hHLIOU shows up at
>the end of the clause in Mk 16:2. Mark piles up so many adverbials in this
>clause that perhaps he just didn't want to place yet another one before the
>main verb. This is a lame explanation. Surely one of you can do better.
>Also, I am wondering why we have a full stop after TOU hHLIOU. Seems like
>KAI LIAN . . . TOU hHLIOU can be understood as a preface to KAI ELEGON PROS
>hEAUTAS. The full stop, stops us where we should not stop. But that is a
>different question than the position of ANATEILANTOS TOU hHLIOU or perhaps
>is is a related question.
>Some of you linguists have any ideas about the pragmatic significance of the
>clause final position of ANATEILANTOS TOU hHLIOU?
I've read Ben Crick's comment, but I frankly can't see any real problem in
this verse. The text: KAI LIAN PRWI THi MIAi TWN SABBATWN ERCONTAI EPI TO
MNHMEION ANATEILANTOS TOU hHLIOU.
I DON'T think there's any contradiction between LIAN PRWI AND ANATEILANTOS
TOU hHLIOU nor any redundancy either. LIAN PRWI means "very early" but it
doesn't seem to me to indicate "before daybreak" as one would surmise in a
comparable text in Mk 1:35 KAI PRWI ENNUCA LIAN ANASTAS EXHLQEN ... In 16:2
it seems to me that the writer wants to specify that it was very early in
the day but underscores at the end of the sentence that the arrival of the
women at the tomb was AFTER SUNRISE. Looks to me like these temporal
expressions have gravitated toward the beginning and end of the statement.
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics/Washington University
Home: 7222 Colgate Ave./St. Louis, MO 63130/(314) 726-5649
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