[b-greek] Re: Does "If A then B mean if not B then not A" ?

From: DJNordlund@aol.com
Date: Thu Jun 28 2001 - 21:17:49 EDT

<HTML><FONT FACE=arial,helvetica>In a message dated 6/28/2001 1:14:33 PM Pacific Daylight Time,
<BR>rickstamp@gmx.net writes:
<BR>&gt;I have seen it stated that it is a logical fallacy when one assumes that a &gt;
<BR>conditional statement is also true in the reverse as in "If A, then B is not
<BR>equal to
<BR>&gt;if non-A, then non-B) as described by Wallace on page 687. &nbsp;&nbsp;Could one also &gt;
<BR>state that this is also the case for "if not B then not A"? &nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;Assume a third
<BR>class &gt;conditional with EAN + subjunctive followed by an apodosis in the
<BR>&gt;Rick Stamp
<BR>when you have a valid implication such as
<BR> &nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(1) if A then B
<BR>you are correct in understanding that it is NOT logically valid to claim
<BR> &nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(2) if not-A then not-B
<BR>However, if (1) above is valid, then it IS valid to conclude
<BR> &nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;(3) if not-B then not-A
<BR>regardless of the Greek you are analyzing.
<BR>Hope this is helpful,
<BR>Dan Nordlund
B-Greek home page: http://metalab.unc.edu/bgreek>
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