[b-greek] Re: AN in place of EAN

From: Carl W. Conrad (cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu)
Date: Sat Jul 07 2001 - 10:25:38 EDT


At 9:31 AM -0400 7/7/01, Jay Anthony Adkins wrote:
>Fellow B-Greek Members,
>
>Mark 8:35 (GNT) OS GAR EAN QELH THN YUCHN AUTOU SWSAI APOLESEI AUTHN OS D'
>AN APOLESEI THN YUCHN AUTOU ENEKEN EMOU KAI TOU EUAGGELIOU SWSEI AUTHN.
>
>Matt 16:25 (GNT) OS GAR EAN QELH THN YUCHN AUTOU SWSAI APOLESEI AUTHN OS
>D' AN APOLESEI THN YUCHN AUTOU ENEKEN EMOU EURHSEI AUTHN
>
>Luke 9:24 (GNT) OS GAR AN QELH THN YUCHN AUTOU SWSAI APOLESEI AUTHN OS D'
>AN APOLESH THN YUCHN AUTOU ENEKEN EMOU OUTOS SWSEI AUTHN
>
>My question is about the first phrase where Luke use AN in place of EAN.
>Can anyone explain why such a change was made and any possible difference
>it would make? According to several English translations I have compared,
>none have made any changes in the phrase as a result. I also must note
>that in all three passages the TR uses AN in place of EAN, however, most
>of the translations I have checked do not use the TR. My UBS 3rd edition
>has no remarks in the apparatus concerning this phrase in Matthew, Mark or
>Luke, therefore I must assume they felt there was no reason to note any
>variants. I could understand how someone with the other texts in front of
>them could hear or misread AN as opposed to EAN, but I am still curious as
>to what difference this may make, if any.

In the Koine the older distinction between EAN (for EI + AN) and AN was not
regularly observed. If we assume Marcan priority (as I would, although I'm
sure not all B-Greekers would), I'd think that Luke made the change to
conform to better "school" usage--I suspect that the GUMNASIA taught AN
with subjunctive as normal unless the conditional really called for an "if."
--

Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Emeritus)
Most months: 1647 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243
cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu OR cwconrad@ioa.com
WWW: http://www.artsci.wustl.edu/~cwconrad/

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