From: Carl W. Conrad (email@example.com)
Date: Fri Aug 10 2001 - 15:16:58 EDT
At 5:21 PM +0200 8/10/01, Iver Larsen wrote:
>I have a question on this sentence:
>Matt 8:7 EGW ELQWN QERAPEUSW AUTON
>All the translations I have checked interpret it as a straightforward
>statement: I shall come and heal him.
>My problem is that this does not fit with the fronted EGW, nor does it fit
>well with the context. It is a Roman officer who has just said that he has a
>very sick servant lying in his home. All the bystanders knew that Jesus as a
>Jew could not enter into the house of a gentile, and the officer makes clear
>in the next verse that he did not require Jesus to come to his home although
>people might have thought so from his description of the servant lying in
>bed at home.
>Because of the EGW and the context, I am wondering whether it would not be
>possible - or better - to take the main verb as a first person subjunctive
>aorist rather than an indicative future. In this case it would become a
>question: "Should *I* come (to your house) and heal him?"
>There are other examples of a present participle followed by a first person
>subjunctive aorist, for instance:
>Mk 6:37 APELQONTES AGORASWMEN ... "Should we go and buy...?"
>In both cases one could assume an implied: Do you want me/us to ....
>corresponding to the English subjunctive "should".
I must say that I agree with Clay here; I think the conventional
understanding of this text is correct. By the way, did you really mean to
call APELQONTES in Mk 6:37 a present participle? I would have said it's
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Emeritus)
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