From: Alan B. Thomas (email@example.com)
Date: Mon Aug 27 2001 - 23:19:28 EDT
Mark Wilson asked...
> >In Hebrews 8:10, we have:
> >...KAI EPI KARDIAS AUTWN EMPGRAFW AUTOUS
> >KAI ESOMAI AUTOIS EIS QEON
> >KAI AUTOI ESONTAI MOI EIS LAON.
> >What are the translational options for EIS, which
> >I assume would be the same in its function with
> QEON and LAON.
> >Some translations seem to not translate it
Carl Conrad wrote concerning this...
> This Heb 8:8-12 is a direct citation from Jeremiah
> 31:31-34 (LXX 38:33); I
> think it reflects Semitic usage "be for" =
> "become"--so that one ought not
> to understand EIS QEON and EIS LAON in terms of
> ordinary Greek grammar at
> all here.
This raises yet another question then. Did the LXX
translators abandon "ordinary Greek grammar" when
translating the Hebrew MT text both here and
If Carl's thought above is correct, then is it
the case that EIS would communicate "become"?
This may not be the appropriate forum for such
a question, but Carl's comment go me to thinking.
Alan B. Thomas
"Reality is only temporary."
V. L. Jr.
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