From: Alan B. Thomas (email@example.com)
Date: Tue Aug 28 2001 - 09:19:05 EDT
> So I think that, yes, at least in this
> case, the LXX
> translators did abandon "ordinary Greek grammar" in
> order to account for
> what was in the Hebrew. We often have a tendency to
> do this sort of thing
> when translating from Greek to English.
I was trying to take this another direction.
What I think I was more after was justification
for why IN THIS INSTANCE did they abandon ordinary
grammar? (The LXX generally follows Greek grammar.)
Furthermore, does not Greek have the ability to
communicate the concept "become" here? If they
understood the idea to mean "become", then is
EIS QEON the way to communicate that to a Greek?
Alan B. Thomas
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This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.4 : Sat Apr 20 2002 - 15:37:05 EDT