[b-greek] Re: Matt 26:50

From: Iver Larsen (iver_larsen@sil.org)
Date: Fri Aug 31 2001 - 14:34:03 EDT

> I think that's wise--and it is puzzling enough. What I haven't
> been able to
> fathom is how you can see a QUESTION in hETAIRE, EF' hO PAREI. Surely
> you're not understanding EF' hO as equivalent to EPI TI?

The grammar is awkward and does not appear to be a question. It can only be
understood as a question if we supply some words from the context, but I am
not sure which.

KJV and RSV had it as a question, and NA27 gives the question as an
alternative suggestion in the apparatus.

BADG suggests a question for Matt 26:50 under the entry for EPI under III
1.b which I quoted in the last e-mail.

According to subsection 9 under hOS in BDAG, it can be used in indirect
questions, but not in direct questions. That is why one needs to supply some
words so that it can become an indirect question.

The suggestions under subsection 2a also suggest an implied question.

Although I cannot say I understand it clearly, I am far from the first one
to have suggested a question. It has its problems, but it seems to me to be
the least problematic from a contextual point of view.

Iver Larsen

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