From: Carl W. Conrad (email@example.com)
Date: Fri Aug 31 2001 - 15:05:33 EDT
OK, I did read that in your original post, and I've also looked at BDAG (I
assumed you were citing the older BAGD) which doesn't add much. Yes, there
are some who think a question was implicit. I can't agree, of course, "that
it's the least problematic from a contextual point of view." In fact, what
I find particularly disturbing about it is that your interpretation of the
context seems to me to be dictating not so much what the Greek actually
says as what you think it OUGHT to say. Nevertheless, I have no business
being dogmatic about this, especially as any resolution of the problem must
be speculative rather than unquestionable.
At 8:34 PM +0200 8/31/01, Iver Larsen wrote:
>> I think that's wise--and it is puzzling enough. What I haven't
>> been able to
>> fathom is how you can see a QUESTION in hETAIRE, EF' hO PAREI. Surely
>> you're not understanding EF' hO as equivalent to EPI TI?
>The grammar is awkward and does not appear to be a question. It can only be
>understood as a question if we supply some words from the context, but I am
>not sure which.
>KJV and RSV had it as a question, and NA27 gives the question as an
>alternative suggestion in the apparatus.
>BADG suggests a question for Matt 26:50 under the entry for EPI under III
>1.b which I quoted in the last e-mail.
>According to subsection 9 under hOS in BDAG, it can be used in indirect
>questions, but not in direct questions. That is why one needs to supply some
>words so that it can become an indirect question.
>The suggestions under subsection 2a also suggest an implied question.
>Although I cannot say I understand it clearly, I am far from the first one
>to have suggested a question. It has its problems, but it seems to me to be
>the least problematic from a contextual point of view.
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Emeritus)
Most months: 1647 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243
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