From: Carl W. Conrad (email@example.com)
Date: Wed Sep 05 2001 - 21:56:19 EDT
At 9:21 PM -0400 9/5/01, KWmercy@aol.com wrote:
>Why isn't there a "past" tense of ginwskw in scripture?
>Also, there is eidow in scripture. Is that a substantive of eidw or of
Mt 7:23 OUDEPOTE EGNWN (aorist) hUMAS
Mt 12:7 EI DE EGNWKEITE (pluperfect) ...
Mt 21:45 KAI hOI FARISAIOI TAS PARABOLAS AUTOU EGNWSAN (aorist)
Mk 15:10 EGINWSKEN (imperfect)
That should do for starters.
EIDOS: Lk 3:22, 9:29; Jn 5:37; 2 Cor 5:7; 1 Th 5:22; this is a noun from
the root wEID/wOID/wID; in the GNT it regularly means "outward form" or
"visible appearance"--it's the same word that Plato commonly uses for
transcendental "form" or "idea".
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Emeritus)
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