Date: Fri Sep 07 2001 - 05:16:36 EDT
> Dear Jim:
> Where does it say that Jesus was illiterate? Lk 4 is quite clear that he was
> able to read.
this does have to do with greek so i'm going to say on list what i said in
private to a number of folk.
lk 4 says nothing of the sort that is generally claimed for it. in lk jesus is
handed a scroll opened to a text and then he procedes to *recite* the text.
the verb *anaginwskw* properly means *recite* rather than *read*. why?
because literally the verb is a compound with a preposition. the preposition
*ana* means *again* or *down*. now, if we take this seriously it means *to
know again, to know down* which is much closer in meaning to the english word
*recite* than *read*.
that jesus *recited* is quite a different thing than that he *read*.
best to all
Jim West, ThD
Adjunct Professor of Biblical Studies
Roane State Community College
Biblical Studies Resources
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