From: Kenneth Litwak (email@example.com)
Date: Sat Sep 22 2001 - 01:20:52 EDT
I guess I didn't read this very closely in first
year Greek, but I have a question about 1 John 2:22:
TIS ESTIN (O PSEUSTHS EI MH (O ARNOUMENOS (OTI IHSOUS
OUK ESTIN (O XRISTOS.
If I read this as is, without imposing on it some
theological agnda, it says
"Who is the liar except he who denies that Jesus is
not the Christ?"
If ARNEOMAI meant "affirm", then the OUK would be
reasonable. Since John clearly is saying that the
liar is the one who denies that Jesus is the Christ,
the OUK seems out of place. Now, one could take this
as an actual question rather than a statement, and say
that OUK is being used to show that the expected
answer to this question is yes, i.e., the liar is the
one who denies that Jesus is the Christ, isn't the
liar? I don't think, however, that for this to work
the OUK can be in its position but must be with the
participle, I would think. The translation I
consulted to check this simply ignored the OUK (NASB).
That's not proper, so how is OUK being used? It
can't be used to say that the liar is the one who
denies that Jesus is not the Christ, as that would be
the opposite of the message of 1 John elsewhere.
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This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.4 : Sat Apr 20 2002 - 15:37:07 EDT