From: Jack Kilmon (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Thu Sep 27 2001 - 10:17:04 EDT
----- Original Message -----
From: Alfred Persson <email@example.com>
To: Biblical Greek <firstname.lastname@example.org>
Sent: Wednesday, September 26, 2001 8:22 AM
Subject: [b-greek] re petros/ptr homonym to petros/stone?
> In Kittel's, Vol VI, p. 101, footnote 8, it is suggested petros might
> translate the Aramaic PTR "firstborn," but this view was rejected in O.
> Cullman's own article.
> However in Mt 16:18 Kafe is inexplicably rendered petra, retaining its
> femininity in contradiction to the assumption petros renders kafe
> the Gospels. This indicates kafe Mt 16:18 does not underlie petros.
kafe? The Aramaic would have been something like:
attah Kefa hu we'al Kefa den ebneh qehali
Kefa = Rock; Petros = Rock.
> Moreover in Jn 1:40 petros is dissimilar to petros in vs 42 for Cephas is
> not explained by translating it as Peter.
The author of John is writing 60 years afterwards and already knows that
the Peter of v40 is also the Kefa of v42.
> If petros renders peter and not kafe that explains the lexical data
> were used as proper nouns till the NT established such usage.
Symeon bar Yonah himself nor his community may never have used
PETROS. He may have been knoown among them as KEFA and
the Greek rendering/translation rose later in the Hellenistic Christian
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