From: Carl W. Conrad (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Tue Oct 09 2001 - 00:09:47 EDT
At 9:09 PM -0500 10/8/01, email@example.com wrote:
> While we are discussing Romans 3: 9,
>"IOUDAIOUS TE KAI hELLHNAS," may I ask to what
>does PANTAS refer?
> Does it mean all of both groups?
> Does it mean all hELLHNAS, remembering
>that there were many Gentile nations, but only one
> Since IOUDAIOUS is plural, is it better to
>see this and hELLHNAS as applying to individuals
>and not nations?
> Would it be a better translation to render
>this as, "Jews and all Gentiles are under sin," or
>as, "Jews and Gentiles are all under sin?"
> Jim Drickamer
> Baton Rouge, La.
Text: PROHiTIASAMEQA GAR IOUDAIOUS TE KAI hELLHNAS PANTAS hUF' hAMARTIAN EINAI
No: PANTAS is predicative with EINAI: it must be " ... Jews and Greeks as
well to be all subject to sin."
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Emeritus)
Most months: 1647 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243
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