[b-greek] Re: John 1:3-5

From: B. D. Colt (babc2@home.com)
Date: Wed Oct 10 2001 - 08:06:46 EDT

On 7 Oct 01, at 23:16, Harry W. Jones wrote:

> Dear Joe,
> I believe your question on John 2:4 was covered on the List in the past at
> sometime. Seems like I remember Carl giving the answer. But verse four is
> covered by Wallace in GGBB on page 150 as being an idiom meaning something
> like,"What do I have to do with you?" or "What do we have in common? Leave
> me alone!" Also you might check BDF 299.3 and Smyth sec.1479-80.
The NET has a Translator's Note on this which I found helpful. In case you
don't have access to it, here it is:

The phrase . . . is Semitic in origin. The equivalent Hebrew
expression in the Old Testament had two basic meanings: (1)
When one person was unjustly bothering another, . . . (2) When
someone was asked to get involved in a matter he felt was no
business of his, he could say to the one asking him, "What to me
and to you?" meaning, "That is your business, how am I involved?"
. . . Option (1) implies hostility, while option (2) implies merely

Barbara D. Colt, mailto:babc2@home.com
St John the Evangelist, San Francisco

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